@ora, sure, but the point is just, there's no EVIDENCE for it. Notice the following distinction. (a) Suppose Christ's teachings were identical to Buddha's in every way. Then we would have a good case that there was borrowing from Buddhism. (b) In the event, however, they are not -- there are similarities, and some massive differences. There is therefore no evidence FROM the teachings that he meant to teach Buddhism. Now, if there were independent evidence that He did intend to teach Buddhism, then your special pleading would be allowed. As it is, though, there's not -- none whatsoever -- so you're committing the fallacy of paring down his teaching to the parts that seem similar to Buddhism, saying that that's what he really meant, and then saying that the rest was just window-dressing -- AND USING THIS as evidence that He did intend to teach Buddhism, so that the whole process of paring down was justified in the first place. Needless to say, this is completely illegitimate. The fact is, there's no evidence for your fancivul story.