I haven't read this thread in awhile, but I read the last few posts, so I'm just going to say this:
In any exchange of goods in a free market, both sides benefit. If I buy a pair of shoes, I gain equal or greater utility from that pair of shoes than I could get from the next best alternative to those shoes given the money I spent on them. Conversely, the company selling me those shoes gains more utility from the money that they received from me than the pair of shoes, or they would not sell me those shoes. The same applies to any transaction in a free market - labour, (I'm American and I prefer that spelling Invictus. In fact I prefer all the British spellings) goods, services, it makes no difference. Since no one is forcing you to make the transaction, the only reason you would make that transaction is an increase in utility. This is the fundamental concept of the creation of wealth. The more you work, the more you sell, the more you have created - you've given someone something they valued more than what they gave, and you have received something that you valued more than what you gave. Thus both sides are happier, and you have created wealth.
Therefore one's wealth a measure of what they have already done for society, and not how much they have yet to do for society. I contest that it is your social obligation, if indeed you do have one, (a point I disagree with) to become as wealthy as humanly possible.
My question is this then: How is it possible to exploit someone in a free market economy? If all parties are acting in their own rational self interest, it is impossible to exploit someone, because they are gaining something of greater value than what they gave.