A fair question. I'll preface my answer by saying that, on the one hand, I think the Court's ruling was too broad in the exceptions that it permitted, and I would have liked to have seen it based a little more in the science of what constitutes an implantation-preventing drug or device. On the other hand, I personally think it's fine for explicitly-granted personal rights (in this case, religious free exercise) to trump implicitly-derived personal rights (in this case, women's rights to control their reproduction). We can disagree about that -- and perhaps about whether the definition of corporations as "persons" is acceptable (although that train has long since left the station both in the US and elsewhere) -- but it's a position I think is reasonable. As for the jezebel piece:
It's too uncareful and too much venting, with a liberal sprinkling of unclever epithets for those with whom she disagrees. This offends my sensibilities as a critical thinker and writer rather more than it does my sensibilities as a Christian. The Mother Jones piece offends my political (and, to lesser extent, my religious) sensibilities, but it's a piece with which I can interact because it was infused with a much smaller percentage of raw emotion.
On the matter of factual inaccuracies:
"They bought Hobby Lobby's 'RELIGIOUS LIBERTY!' argument despite the fact that Hobby Lobby doesn't personally object to covering vasectomies for men; their religion only applies slut panic to women. The Court won't classify Hobby Lobby's woman-only scientifically illiterate objections to contraception as 'discrimination' against women."
You know, because Hobby Lobby and Conestoga object to all forms of contraception and want all of them not only not paid for, but also not permitted to be used. I will grant that SCOTUS went beyond what Hobby Lobby asked (apparently, although see this for a suggestion that it didn't -- http://www.usatoday.com/story/news/nation/2014/06/30/morning-after-iuds/11768653/) and that even Hobby Lobby's request went further than the science says it ought to have done, but the author's assertion that Hobby Lobby's relatively specific objections were somehow internally inconsistent (or that they must have been motivated by a desire to do maximum damage to women without touching men) is only possible if she's reading the case with blinders on. It's just not supported by the evidence.
"The five men of the Supreme Court made pains to specify that this only applies to bosses who specifically object to women who want to use a portion of their compensation to obtain a pharmaceutical that will help them not get pregnant."
This is sloppy enough to obscure its intended meaning and to come out looking flat wrong (even if it does serve to spice up the pathos that all AP Lang students have come to know and love/hate). What she meant to say: women who want to get IUDs and Plan B treatments can't use their employer-paid-for health benefits to get them. What she actually said: bosses can tell women how they can and can't spend their money after they've gotten it as payment for their work. Hobby Lobby was not trying to stop the women from using their actual compensation for purposes of buying Plan B and IUDs; it was trying to stop accessible payment for Plan B and IUDs from being part of the actual compensation itself. Or, put another way, Hobby Lobby wanted the money for the drugs to come directly from the female employees' PERSONAL spending rather than directly from the company's CORPORATE spending. It's perfectly reasonable to dispute about whether that's an acceptable thing for a company to want (the SCOTUS dissenters did with a vengeance), but the article misses the subtle distinction completely, with the result that it misdefines (or misconceptualizes) "compensation" and runs straight on to the inaccurate suggestion that the companies were trying to stop the women from using their PERSONAL spending to buy the drugs and devices in question. Maybe that's not what author MEANT, but it's certainly what she SAID.