Let's say we roll the dice 10 times. Your chance of a 6 is 10 out of 60.
Can you see that the probability does not increase?

"The more times you roll it the more chance you will get a 6" - common sense
"But the more times you roll the more chance you will also get 1-5" - REALITY

Draug if I roll 6 die are you saying that I will definitely get a 6? Don't be absurd.

And no, there ar 6^3 possible results in your 3 rolls.
111
112
113
114
115
116
121
122
123
124
125
126
131
132
133
134
135
136
141
142
143
144
145
146
...
631
632
633
634
635
636
641
642
643
644
645
646
651
652
653
654
655
656
661
662
663
664
665
666

No, SY. The math has been provided. You have a (5/6)^6 chance of not getting a 6, so a 1-(5/6)^6 chance of getting a 6.

Yes but draug there are still 1/6 chances that involve getting a six in all of those combinations

@SY - I suggest you go take a Probability and Statistics course before you embarrass yourself further.

I know, but we're talking about one roll of either 1 or 10 million dice here. if I roll 10 million dice there's a huge chance to hit at least 1 six, much bigger than with 1 die, that's what Draugnar and I were trying to explain...

I knew this from the start and everyone else probably did so too...

No, there isn't, SY. I will use two dice only and show you all the combinations.

11
12
13
14
15
16
21
22
23
24
25
26
31
32
33
34
35
36
41
42
43
44
45
46
51
52
53
54
55
56
61
62
63
64
65
66

Because the first die may alreayd have a six, there are 6 guaranteed combination. plus 5 more when the first die isn't a 6. 11 total combinations that have at least one 6 out of 36. That is nearly a one third chance in just 2 dice. Nearly but not quite.

You are using two dice, not two rolls of the same dice. That's completly different.

Steephie, please do not ask a question and then assert your answer.

I suppose my question wasn't too stupid after all :P

It's indeed completely different, but he answered the question :) And yes, I know I made some confusing grammatical errors in the opening post, but that's what I meant and Draugnar answered it...

And I was only trying to help you understand it too now I get it SYnapse, didn't mean to offend you, sorry if I did...

This is as an answer to the post of 04:14 PM by SYnapse, I've got the nasty feeling there's a lot of new posts when I click post reply :P

No SY. You are seriously confused. Got ake a class. Whether you roll them together or record what the rolls were with the same dice is irrelevant. Each roll has a 1 in 6 chance. This is not disputed. Each roll is annefected by the previous or next roll. Also not disputed. But the over all odds are cumulative (but not truly additive) and you refuse to accept this. I suggest you go take a probability and stats class as you clearly either field it the first time around, or never took it.

failed, not field.

I made a new thread for this

unaffected. and "Go take a class". My typing sucks today.

oh boy, another thread :P let's go see then :)

He is using coins which don't work the same as they are 2 sided and 2^2=2*2=2+2 where as dice are six sided and 6^6=/=6*6=/=6+6.

Not sure if Synapse is trolling or just genuinely stupid...

I'm not either, yebellz.

Tonight when I go home I'm going to dig up several articles that prove you both wrong, and then I expect an apology, because you clearly are not a master poker player otherwise you would own a mansion and a Ferrari, and I'm rather offended by the way in which you conduct argument by issuing insults immediately.

I'd love to see those articles with mathematical proofs (and not copin toss examples, but really mathematical proofs). I will happily go scan some pages on probabilities over time for you from my college Probabilities and Statistics books.

And SY, I own a Mercedes and used to own a Corvette. Nothing that special abaout a Ferrari and even the best poker players can get a bad beat. I have seen quad Aces beaten by a Royal Flush. So that is a stupid thing to say. PRobabilities are just odds. But odds are occassionally beaten, that is why they are odds and not guarantees.

I'm rather making a comment about your arrogance in mathematics based on something rudimentary such as poker, which is not a mathematical but a psychological game, and your general manner leads me to believe you're terrible at poker, as not only do you not understand the principles of probability but you also resort to insults and are clearly emotionally heated in your response.

I am also talking about concepts beyond your college books. The concepts we are talking about such as infinite dice rolls, are not college-based conundrums but they are rather at the highest levels of physics theory and mathematical philosophy. I didn't even begin to mention the problems with using a recurring percentage of probability, or the fact that with infinite rolls, we would get an infinite amount of every result. I was just trying to explain to steephie the correct answer, and it infuriates me that you have driven him (or her) into the incorrect answer.

Done with SY now. He is clearly trolling or an idiot and I don't waste my effort on either.

Muh Muh Muh

MONSTERMUTE

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dice#Probability - what I've been saying all along

From that article:

So, for n rolls of an s-sided die the probability of any result is 1/s^n

Epic. Fucking. Fail. Your own wiki article proves you *wrong*.

For 10 rolls therefore the result is 1/6*10? 1/60? WHICH IS 0.1666667 LIKE I'VE BEEN SAYING ALL ALONG

Not times, idiot. powered. it is 1/(6^10) for each discretete result of ten die. Mu;ltiple that by the number of discrete results that have you desired number in it and you get the probability. Back to the simple 2 dice odds: 1/(6^2) = 1/36 with 11 combinations that means 11/36 or nearly a 1 in 3 shot at getting at least one six. You are confusing the *total* of the dice computation with the odds of a specific number showing on just one of the die.